Len Lisenbee's Outdoor World

    Len Lisenbee is the Outdoor Columnist for the Canadaigua Daily Messenger, Shooting Editor of the former New York Sportsman, retired Special Agent with the US Fish and Wildlife Service and book author of "TALES FROM THE MARSH AND OTHER DRIVEL" a unique look with fact and fiction of his years as a federal game warden.
 

Anyone who has spent any amount of time reading the Bible has no doubt been left with any number of questions about some of the various topics covered. How could Moses get God to change His mind? Where did Cain find his wife? Or Seth? Who and what was Melchizedek really?

There are literally countless questions to be found within the covers of the Holy Bible. This page will address a few of them. If you, like me, share an interest in exploring the Bible to find them and then attempt to solve them, wonderful. If you have a Bible question, feel free to e-mail it to me. Who knows? Maybe together we can find the answer.

WHEN DID Satan FALL FROM GOD'S GRACE

One question that has often been debated in theological circles is when, exactly, did Satan fall from God’s grace? The large majority of theologians believe that he fell sometime before creation, or that he was ejected from Heaven sometime during the week of creation, or that his ejection from heaven occurred sometime before Genesis, Chapter 3. Then, to complicate matters, they have come up with a theory that Satan was given some kind of "free pass" from God that allowed him to come back to Heaven at his pleasure, and even come into the immediate presence of God and speak with Him, as is demonstrated in the Book of Job, Chapters 1 and 2. In other words, the large majority of scriptural experts are willing to accept as fact that Satan, also called the devil, who is the purest essence of evilness, blasphemy, and sinfulness, was (and still is) permitted to come into God’s presence and converse with Him. I’m sorry, but I simply cannot accept that premise. To my way of thinking, God is simply too pure and holy to permit any such contact with His most hated enemy.

Apparently these Bible experts simply cannot accept the possibility that Satan as the serpent (if this angel was really the serpent, that is) could have still been an uncorrupted angel in the presence of God. Therefore, they conclude, he must have fallen from God’s grace before the scene with Eve in the Garden took place.

But, how can that be? After all, this dark angel played an extremely prominent role in the Book of Job. It appears to me that he was actually serving God at that time in his capacity as “official tempter” or “accuser” of humans To say that he fell from grace before, during, or sometime shortly after creation would logically mean that Job existed before creation, which simply is not a possibility. How can any man exist before man was created and had the opportunity to procreate, much less the entire cast of characters we read about in the book of Job?

We mortals almost always tend to underestimate God. We do not understand the most basic concepts of the impossibly high (to us) plain upon which He works. We often forget that He knows everything that was, that is, and that ever will be. He knew His creation of Adam and Eve would sin against His commandment not to partake of the fruit of the tree of knowledge of good and evil. Why else would He put that particular tree there, in the midst of the Garden of Eden, in the first place? Does anyone actually believe that, if He had wanted man to remain sinless for all time or for as long as He wanted them to remain sinless, that it would not have been so? Of course not. Man was predestined to fall from God's grace, and God knew it long before it actually happened. But also keep in mind that it was not God's will that man fell from grace. No, that was an act of man's free will alone, in direct opposition to God's command. God knew that man would fall, but God did not cause man to fall. That was man's doing, all by himself.

Anyway, here are some of my personal thoughts on when Satan actually fell from grace and was cast out of heaven. Please keep in mind that I am not any kind of Biblical scholar, but only a simple Christian who has an inquisitive mind.

First, in the Garden of Eden, is it really Satan that appears as a serpent to tempt Eve? We are not told that it is, or that it isn’t. We assume that the serpent is Satan, mainly because the mere name of Satan is always equated with evil. And, a talking serpent naturally denotes something supernatural, an evilness in this case because of the results. However, what we are told in Scripture is that God spoke to the serpent, and called it a serpent, and cursed it. He did not mention Satan, or specifically curse that angel, but the serpent alone. If Satan was guilty of any evilness in God's eyes, it would be only natural for our Lord to curse him specifically. He did not, so why was that so? Furthermore, in every other instance in the Bible, God calls Satan by name. And, there is no indication anywhere else in the Bible (except Revelation 12 and 20) that Satan is referred to as “the serpent,” and then it is a dragon-like serpent, not a snake-like serpent.

But, if the serpent in Eden actually was Satan, is he fallen from grace at this time in the Garden? I do not believe so, mainly because of his interaction with God in Job. In that Book it is clear that he serves as a “tempter” of humans. Satan is referred to as “tempter”, “deceiver”, and “accuser” of humans in the Bible. That appears to have been his official heavenly-assigned duty when he was serving God. He tempts Job to forsake God. In the Garden of Eden, if it was him, he was also a tempter and deceiver. He was tempting Eve to sin against the commandment of God, which she did, taking Adam down with her. The rest, as they say, is history. But, if the serpent was Satan, then is it possible he was only doing his assigned “job”?

Scripture also tells us that God uses “good spirits” to do things that we mortals might consider to be bad or evil. We read in 1st Kings 22:2, “And there came forth a spirit, and stood before the Lord, and said, I will persuade him. And the Lord said unto him, Wherewith? And he said, I will go forth, and I will be a lying spirit in the mouth of all his prophets. And he said, Thou shalt persuade him, and prevail also: go forth, and do so.” Here God sends out a “spirit” to cause men to lie, simply because it suited His holy purpose. Also, remember that God created evil, also to serve His holy purpose. We read in Isaiah, 45:7, ” I form the light, and create darkness: I make peace, and create evil: I the Lord do all these things.”. So, with all of that in mind, is it also possible He also sent out “spirits” to attempt to deceive men if it suits His holy purposes? Was a good and sinless “spirit” using the guise of a serpent in an attempt to deceive Eve? Why is it so unacceptable that God would also use His angels to interact with mankind in various ways? Why is it impossible for biblical scholars to view Satan in the Old Testament as a servant of God, doing the will of our Father by tempting (read “testing”) men to go against God’s wishes, and accusing them before God of inappropriate behavior? Based on what we find in Scripture it becomes a certainty that He did use His angels in such a manner.

So, if Satan is still a heavenly angel in Job, when did he fall? We find in 1st Chronicles 21:1 “And Satan stood up against Israel, and provoked David to number Israel.” But, is he fallen at this point? No, he is still acting as the tempter, tempting David to number Israel, which was apparently against God’s wishes. David sinned, and Satan walked, but only after once again doing his “job.”

There is another strong hint in Scripture that Satan’s fall did not occur either before or during creation. We read in Nehemiah 9:6: “ Thou, even thou, art Lord alone; thou hast made heaven, the heaven of heavens, with all their host, the earth, and all things that are therein, the seas, and all that is therein, and thou preserves them all; and the host of heaven worships thee.” From this verse we can draw two important conclusions. First, God created the angels (host) during creation. There appears to be no pre-creation existence for angels, according to Scripture. And, the angels were all worshiping God after creation had been completed. The phrase, “and all things that are therein” denotes that (first) man and all of the animals were created and (second) the host of heaven were worshiping God (after man was created). Therefore, from this verse, we can logically conclude that Satan had not fallen before all of creation had been completed by God.

However, an argument could be mounted that at least part of this verse refers to those angels remaining sinless worships God in heaven, but I believe that would be flimsy at best. The phrase, “and thou preserves them all” seems to indicate that, until Nehemiah’s time, everything in heaven had been faithfully preserved by God as He created it. It is written in present tense, so that is the only logical conclusion anyone can reach concerning the content in this verse. Furthermore, if logic prevails, then Satan has not fallen at the time Nehemiah made this pronouncement to the Jewish people, which is estimated by biblical scholars to be around 440 B.C. That is just a relatively short period of time before the Old Testament ended.

So, we have to look farther. Before we skip completely past the Book of Job, it must be pointed out that Satan was in the presence of God, along with the sons of God. We can only presume from those verses that Satan was still “sinless,” because both logic and common sense tells us that corruption and unholy evilness cannot come into the presence of our all-Holy God. And, he was still in God’s good graces, too. So now, we pass over Job, because Satan was again just doing his “job.”

In Psalms 109:6 we find, “Set thou a wicked man over him: and let Satan stand at his right hand.” Once again it appears that Satan is considered to be the accuser here (rather than tempter), and certainly not a fallen angel. David is telling us to allow Satan to accuse the wicked man of his sins. That is, after all, his “job.” So, we must continue our search.

In Ezekiel 28:12-19, we find, “Son of man, take up a lamentation upon the king of Tyrus, and say unto him, thus saith the Lord God; Thou sealest up the sum, full of wisdom, and perfect in beauty. Thou hast been in Eden the garden of God; every precious stone was thy covering, the sardius, topaz, and the diamond, the Beryl, the onyx, and the jasper, the sapphire, the emerald, and the carbuncle, and gold: the workmanship of thy tabrets and of thy pipes was prepared in thee in the day that thou was created. Thou art the anointed cherub that covers; and I have set thee so: thou was upon the holy mountain of God; thou hast walked up and down in the midst of the stones of fire. Thou was perfect in thy ways from the day that thou was created, till iniquity was found in thee. By the multitude of thy merchandise they have filled the midst of thee with violence, and thou hast sinned: therefore I will cast thee as profane out of the mountain of God: and I will destroy thee, O covering cherub, from the midst of the stones of fire. Thine heart was lifted up because of thy beauty, thou hast corrupted thy wisdom by reason of thy brightness: I will cast thee to the ground, I will lay thee before kings, that they may behold thee. Thou hast defiled thy sanctuaries by the multitude of thine iniquities, by the iniquity of thy traffic; therefore will I bring forth a fire from the midst of thee, it shall devour thee, and I will bring thee to ashes upon the earth in the sight of all them that behold thee. All they that know thee among the people shall be astonished at thee: thou shalt be a terror, and never shalt thou be any more.”

This is obviously another prophecy of things to come, primarily because key parts of it are written in the future tense. Note, "I will destroy thee" and “I will cast thee as profane out of the mountain of God:” That Satan was a favorite of God is obvious from these passages. That he will, at some point, transgress against God is equally obvious. But when? According to all that we have already learned, it has not yet occurred. So, let us continue.

In Zechariah 3:1-2, we read, “And he shewed me Joshua the high priest standing before the angel of the Lord, and Satan standing at his right hand to resist him. And the Lord said unto Satan, The Lord rebuke thee, O Satan; even the Lord that hath chosen Jerusalem rebuke thee: is not this a brand plucked out of the fire?” Here is Satan, once again preforming his “job” as tempter and accuser. More importantly, could this be a prophecy of the actual confrontation between Michael, the angel of the Lord, and Satan? We read in Jude 1:9 that they had an argument over the body of Moses. " Yet Michael the archangel, when contending with the devil he disputed about the body of Moses, durst not bring against him a railing accusation, but said, The Lord rebuke thee." I believe that it is. However, it is still a prophecy — an inspired vision of things yet to come. That means we must continue our search, going now into the New Testament.

I believe our journey is now nearing an end. In Matthew 4:8-10, we find, “Again, the devil taketh him up into an exceeding high mountain, and sheweth him all the kingdoms of the world, and the glory of them; And saith unto him, All these things will I give thee, if thou wilt fall down and worship me. Then saith Jesus unto him, Get thee hence, Satan: for it is written, Thou shalt worship the Lord thy God, and him only shalt thou serve.” Is this it? Is Satan, at this point, a fallen angel? YES, he is! He is here not serving God, but serving himself only. But, the proof that he is now fallen is only partially seen here, with him attempting to get Jesus, the only begotten Son of God, to worship him instead of God. The real and solid proof is not found here, but in Luke, and in Revelation.

I believe it is noteworthy to point up that, with respect to Scripture, the first mention of Satan as "the devil" occurs in Matthew 4:1. And, there are 33 total references to "the devil (meaning Satan) in the New Testament. There are four occasions throughout the Old Testament where "devils" (plural or multiple devils) are mentioned, but there is not one single reference made to the devil. Why is this? Is it possible, is it even conceivable, that during nearly 4,000 years of carefully recorded Jewish history that the term, "the devil" was not mentioned one single time? Or, could it be that, before the recorded history of the New Testament actually began with the coming of Jesus, that the devil did not already exist? And now, in Matthew 4, he does. Furthermore, it is obvious from other references in the New Testament that he is now the leader of all devils and the prince of this world. They serve him in his evilness, and are subject to his will from the beginning of the New Testament onward. Just keep in mind that he and all of the devils are still subject to God's will and authority, as Jesus demonstrates repeatedly throughout His ministry on earth.

I also believe it is noteworthy to point up another interesting fact contained in Scripture. Every one of the New Testament authors mention the existence of fallen angels. Every One! And, some of those authors mention them numerous times. Yet in the Old Testament there is but one peripheral or indirect mention of a fallen angel (not including references to Satan, who as has been noted here may not be a fallen angel yet). It is found in Daniel 10:13. “But the prince of the kingdom of Persia withstood me one and twenty days: but, lo, Michael, one of the chief princes, came to help me; and I remained there with the kings of Persia.”

And, once again, I must point up that this Old Testament author was a noted prophet of God, and not a historian. He foretold the future according to God’s revelations to him. And, when he makes mention of what might be a fallen angel, the reference is clearly part of one of his prophecies. Read verses 4 through 21 for the full prophecy. If you do, then you may find yourself wondering if this unnamed angel that speaks to Daniel might just be Satan himself, an angel of God doing God’s work in fighting the “prince of Persia. Furthermore, biblical experts also agree that, while the mention of God's angels are well represented throughout Jewish history (Jacob's ladder, for instance), there is virtually no history concerning fallen angels or demons until very late in that same history (around the time of Christ).”

There is still one other powerful argument concerning evidence contained in the New Testament verses what is not contained in the Old Testament. It relates to demons and demon possession of humans. In the New Testament, which covers a period of (approximately) 100 years, there are more than thirty references to humans being possessed by demons (unclean spirits). Each such reference resulted in the demon or demons being cast out of its/their victim. Some of the references are general in nature, such as “ And they that were vexed with unclean spirits: and they were healed,”(Luke 6:18) denoting that one or multiple unclean spirits were cast out of an unknown number of humans.

However, in the (approximately) 4,000 years of history extending between Genesis and Malachi, most of which was covered in extraordinary detail, there is not one mention, not a single hint, not even a solitary whisper, of any person being possessed by a demon. Not one! The only mention of an “unclean spirit” in the entire Old Testament is found in Zechariah 13:2, and is found in a prophecy about a future event. And take note that this prophet of God lived around 500 B.C., just a short time before the end of the Old Testament (cerca 397 B.C.).

“Evil spirits” are mentioned several times in the Old Testament. One evil spirit came between “Abimelech” and the “men of Shechem (found in Joshua).” Another evil spirit “troubled” Saul (1 Samuel). But both of these “evil spirits” were sent by God to do His bidding. And, God also sent a “lying spirit” to trouble Ahad (1 Kings).

Now, there are numerous, almost countless, miracles recorded throughout the Old Testament. However, not one of them mentions casting out a demon or “unclean spirit.” How can this be if Satan and his demons were already infecting the earth? Those forces of evil would have had around 4,000 years to find at least one human and enter into him. But, there is no mention that they ever did. How can this be?

If there were a single mention of an “unclean spirit” or demon possessing any person anywhere in the Old Testament, then this essay would be at an end, its premise defeated. But, there are no such references. None! And, the only logical and acceptable reason for that omission is that unclean spirits and demons did not exist during the entire period of the Old Testament. They had to still be angels serving God, as was Satan.

The Bible seems to classify some angels as "elect." In 1st Timothy 5:21 we read, “I charge thee before God, and the Lord Jesus Christ, and the elect angels, that thou observe these things without preferring one before another, doing nothing by partiality.”) We also find that some angels are called "holy." In Matthew 25:31 we find, “When the Son of man shall come in his glory, and all the holy angels with him, then shall he sit upon the throne of his glory:”;(also, see Mark 8:38). Of course, up to some point after their creation, all angels were originally elect and holy, enjoying the presence of God and the environment of heaven.

However, the angelic revolution did occur, and Satan and some angels were tossed out of Heaven. In Matthew 25:41 we find, “Then shall he say also unto them on the left hand, Depart from me, ye cursed, into everlasting fire, prepared for the devil and his angels: ” However, all such references to “bad” or fallen angels occur only within the writings of the New Testament. All of them! In the Old Testament all references to angels, and there are a great many of them, refer only to “good” angels, most often as “angel of the Lord”, “angel of God”, or “God’s angel.” Which begs the obvious question. If there were tens of thousands of fallen angels that have suddenly become demons, devils and unclean spirits and are completely restricted to the earth, where were they? They surely cannot be found anywhere in the Old Testament! But, how can that possibly be true?

Now, let's jump to that beautiful Book so recently mentioned. In Luke 10:17 we read, “And the seventy returned again with joy, saying, Lord, even the devils are subject unto us through thy name. And he said unto them, I beheld Satan as lightning fall from heaven. Behold, I give unto you power to tread on serpents and scorpions, and over all the power of the enemy: and nothing shall by any means hurt you.” Here Jesus Himself tells us that He actually observed “Satan as lightning fall from heaven.” This is the past tense. The event has already occurred, and Jesus, the Son of God, witnessed it happen.

Now an argument could be mounted that Jesus, who was with God from before when time began, could actually be speaking about an event He witnessed long ago in the past. Which causes us more confusion, for there is no way to determine the answer to when Jesus actually observed Satan fall as lightning from heaven. Or is there? Actually, I believe that there is more proof that Satan’s fall actually occurred sometime between the end of the Old Testament and the beginning of the New. It is found in The Book of Revelation, Chapter 12:7-12.

" And there was war in heaven: Michael and his angels fought against the dragon; and the dragon fought and his angels, And prevailed not; neither was their place found any more in heaven. And the great dragon was cast out, that old serpent, called the Devil, and Satan, which deceives the whole world: he was cast out into the earth, and his angels were cast out with him. And I heard a loud voice saying in heaven, Now is come salvation, and strength, and the kingdom of our God, and the power of his Christ: for the accuser of our brethren is cast down, which accused them before our God day and night. And they overcame him by the blood of the Lamb, and by the word of their testimony; and they loved not their lives unto the death. Therefore rejoice, ye heavens, and ye that dwell in them. Woe to the inhabiters of the earth and of the sea! for the devil is come down unto you, having great wrath, because he knows that he hath but a short time."

Note that the “ great dragon was cast out”. Then we immediately find, “ And I heard a loud voice saying in heaven, Now is come salvation, and strength, and the kingdom of our God, and the power of his Christ:” It appears from the proximity of these two verses that Satan’s fall occurred sometime just before Christ was born. Just before the New Testament, with God’s new covenant with mankind, began. It also appears that, right up to the time he was cast out, Satan was still tempting (accusing) people on earth. He was still serving God as the accuser.

Heaven is taught to rejoice (loss of Satan and coming of Christ) while woe is given to inhabiters of earth and the sea. We will continually suffer his “great wrath” until God finally says enough, and Jesus appears in the clouds.

One important point should be noted. We find that these verses in Revelation reinforce the theory that the devil fell long after creation. If Satan fell from God's grace before creation, or if he fell before Genesis 3, then how does Revelation 12:10 make any sense at all? "And I heard a loud voice saying in heaven, Now is come salvation, and strength, and the kingdom of our God, and the power of his Christ: for the accuser of our brethren is cast down, which accused them before our God day and night." How could Satan accuse "the brethren" day and night when there were no brethren living on earth for him to accuse? That would be another impossibility, just like Job existing before creation.

These passages also serve as even stronger proof that Satan could not possibly have had the interaction with God that is witnessed in the Book of Job if he had already fallen. It is clear that “neither was their place found any more in heaven” means once Satan was cast out, he could not get back in for any reason. Therefore, he also had to be an angel in good standing with God if he was involved with the deception of Eve in the Garden.

So, I believe our search is at an end. When did Satan actually fall from Heaven and God’s grace? Based on my own personal research of these Scripture verses, it is most likely that Satan’s fall was sometime shortly before Jesus was born in Bethlehem. We cannot know for sure, based on the scriptural information available to us at this time. However, from what we have read, we can logically assume that it could have been sometime after the period when the Old Testament ended and the period of the New Testament began, a period of approximately 394 years, according to Dr. Scofield in his reference Bible.

Is there any possible way to prove this theory on Satan's fall? I believe there could be. The "war in heaven" had to be a terrible, terrifying situation for the inhabitants of the earth. It most probably appeared as a monstrous electrical storm (Satan as lightning fell from heaven). Is there any mention of such a storm in the historical annals of the Jews? Surely it was of such magnitude so as to draw at least some human attention and historical note. My guess is that it was probably mentioned in several different accounts. If some scholar was to make a search of those ancient records.... Well, who knows what he might find.

* * * * *

Remember that the above commentary is my opinion alone. I have not discussed or debated this particular topic with any other person. And now for a little more speculation on my part. Why do you think Satan fell out of God’s grace? While it is a certainty that no human here on earth knows the answer to that question for sure, I will be so bold as to put forth a theory that has at least some scriptural backing.

Most biblical scholars agree that Satan fell from God’s grace because pride was found in his heart. They support their reasoning with several verses, and especially Ezekiel 28:17. ”Thine heart was lifted up because of thy beauty, thou hast corrupted thy wisdom by reason of thy brightness:” That wording does sound like a prideful heart. But, does that theory make any sense? Remember that, whatever his sin, it was so big that it included a conspiracy with one-third of all of the angels in Heaven! Pride in the heart somehow just does not cut it. Why would all those angels conspire together regarding Satan’s pride? No, whatever Satan’s sin was, it had to be a lot bigger and more complex than just developing a prideful heart.

Satan, at one extended point in his existence, was extremely close to God. We know from the Bible (Ezekiel 28:14) that he was called the “anointed cherub”. We find in that verse, “Thou art the anointed cherub that covereth; and I have set thee so: thou was upon the holy mountain of God; thou hast walked up and down in the midst of the stones of fire.” And, from the very next verse, we know that he was perfect from the time of his creation until iniquity was found in him. “ Thou was perfect in thy ways from the day that thou was created, till iniquity was found in thee.” It is very obvious from the various verses in the Old Testament that Satan was a much favored angel in the sight of God, possibly even being the most favored angel of them all.

What was that iniquity? The answer to that question is the key. And here is my personal theory on that answer. We know that Satan was probably one of the “sons of God.” “ Now there was a day when the sons of God came to present themselves before the Lord, and Satan came also among them.” Based on that verse we can safely and logically conclude that he was 1) a son of God, or 2) equal with the sons of God, or 3) was of greater authority than the sons of God.

Now, God had made a decision long before creation as to which of His sons would become “the only begotten son of God,” the Christ that would bring the new covenant to humans and live His life among men as the man known as Jesus. Whoever God selected would necessarily become equal with God. That angel would be equal with God in all of the power and authority of God! Now, that is pretty heady stuff when it comes to ultimate power. And we know that Satan wanted power. He wanted to remove and replace God with himself. The only conceivable way he could do that was to somehow obtain God’s power and authority, and then use it against Him. And, for that reason alone, he desperately wanted to be the son of God that was selected to be the Christ of God here on earth.

There was just one minor problem for Satan. He, like we mortals, underestimated our Lord. Twice!! Once again, remember that God knows everything. Everything that was, and that is, and that ever will be. God knew of Satan’s eventual iniquity, and the reasons for it. In His unbounded wisdom He designated another of His sons to become the Christ, the only begotten son of the living God. He knew the angel that would serve Him, that would love Him, that would for a while be equal with Him, and then would one day voluntarily give up His ultimate power so that God alone would once again be the One Almighty God. We find in Scripture, “ And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all.” (1st Corinthians 15:28)

The second underestimation by Satan is proven by Scripture. This deceiver apparently did not know that God can look inside us and understand our innermost thoughts. We find in Isaiah 14: 13-14, “For thou hast said in thine heart, I will ascend into heaven, I will exalt my throne above the stars of God: I will sit also upon the mount of the congregation, in the sides of the north: I will ascend above the heights of the clouds; I will be like the most High.” God clearly and completely understood Satan’s iniquity even as it was being formulated by him and his conspiracy with the other angels was taking place.

God knew that Satan would never have voluntarily given up that ultimate power had he been chosen to receive it, but would have instead used it in an attempt to unseat God Himself. I believe that was the iniquity that Satan was found to possess, and that very same iniquity was sufficient to corrupt both him and one-third of the angels in Heaven.

* * * * *

It might be more than just a little ironic that the theory espoused here actually makes more sense, scripturally speaking, then any of the three most commonly accepted theories (pre-creation, during creation, and pre-Genesis 3). Fundamental Christians have a very hard time accepting the fact that the serpent that beguiled Eve in the Garden was not an already fallen Satan. These knowledgeable Christians who constantly tell their followers to read the Bible and believe what they read are willing to jump to two undocumented conclusions in that Book, one of which is so highly improbable as to be impossible, at least in human terms.

The serpent we are introduced to in the Garden of Eden is not identified as Satan anywhere in the Bible. Christians that believe that it simply has to be Satan jump to that conclusion, thereby accepting something as fact that is not in any way Scriptural. Even the Apostle Paul, when given a wonderful opportunity to identify the serpent as any other entity, instead called it “the serpent.” In 2nd Corinthians 11:3, we read, “ But I fear, lest by any means, as the serpent beguiled Eve through his subtilty, so your minds should be corrupted from the simplicity that is in Christ.” If that serpent was Satan, does anyone honestly believe that Paul would not have given credit where credit was due, and especially to Satan had that dark angel been the source of man's travail from the creation on? Of course he would have. Therefore, how can anyone jump to the conclusion that the serpent is Satan when nothing in the way of scriptural proof exists?

Then there is the more puzzling and troubling question about the impossible. Virtually everyone would probably agree that Satan, as a fallen angel, represents the most evil, most corrupted, most despicable entity existing on earth today. Furthermore, they would also most likely agree he was that way from the instant he fell from God’s grace. And, as stated earlier in this essay, most biblical scholars would have us believe that Job existed early in the Old Testament, but well after creation occurred. They have accepted as either fact or most likely theory that Satan, the most despicable, corrupt and evil fallen angel, was given some kind of “heavenly pass” that permitted him to enter back into heaven after “going to and fro in the earth” at his pleasure. They somehow justify that the angel that caused one-third of the angels in heaven to be ejected to the earth by conspiring with them into sinning against God could come back to heaven for a visit any time he wanted to, and even have face-to-face conversations with God!

I simply cannot accept that theory. While the Bible is essentially silent on the subject, I do not believe God’s absolute holiness would permit evilness or “iniquity” in any form to enter heaven, much less pass and re-pass there at will. If that were true, could Satan be expected to attempt to corrupt even more angels while on one or more of his “visits”? Would he sin other sins while in heaven? I would find Satan’s presence in heaven after his fall from God’s grace to be an impossible situation. No, for Satan to come into God’s presence indicates to me that he was pure and sinless at that time. There simply is no other acceptable explanation.

* * * * *

Now we have to address what might be two unsightly wrinkles in the logic of this essay. In 1st John 3:8, we find, “He that committeth sin is of the devil; for the devil sinneth from the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil.” And, in John 8:44, we find, “Ye are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye will do. He was a murderer from the beginning, and abode not in the truth, because there is no truth in him. When he speaketh a lie, he speaketh of his own: for he is a liar, and the father of it.” The key to the true meaning of these verses concerning Satan revolves around what, exactly, is meant by, “the devil sinneth from the beginning” and “He was a murderer from the beginning”? If “the beginning” refers to that period of time during or before creation, then this entire essay has been a waste of time on both our parts (reader and author).

However, I believe a solid scriptural argument can be made for “the beginning” referring to the start of the New Testament period. First, there is the reference to “the devil.” As noted earlier, the first reference to that entity is found in Matthew 4:1. That term is not found anywhere in the entire Old Testament. Why is that? Secondly, in the first cited verse from 1st John we once again have a close relationship between “the devil” and “the Son of God was manifested.” One seems to have occurred just prior to the other. And, in that verse, we also find that Jesus was also sent by God “ that he might destroy the works of the devil.”

Is there any strong argument for the “beginning” as stated by John in John 8:44 and 1st John 3:8 being the beginning of the New Testament? Yes, there certainly is. In Luke 1:1-4, we find, “Forasmuch as many have taken in hand to set forth in order a declaration of those things which are most surely believed among us, Even as they delivered them unto us, which from the beginning were eyewitnesses, and ministers of the word; It seemed good to me also, having had perfect understanding of all things from the very first, to write unto thee in order, most excellent Theophilus, That thou mightest know the certainty of those things, wherein thou hast been instructed. It hardly seems logical to assume that Luke witnessed the creation of the heavens and earth, doesn’t it? So, exactly what ”beginning” was he referring to in these verses? Obviously he is talking about the beginning of the New Testament, the birth of Jesus, the Christ of the living God. No other conclusion can be reached.

And, in John 1:1-2, there is another indication. ” In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. The same was in the beginning with God.” I believe that an extremely strong argument could be made that, since Jesus is acknowledged as ”The Word”, that John was actually talking here about two different “beginnings”. The first, in verse 1, refers to the beginning of the New Testament, the birth of Jesus. However, in verse 2, John denotes the deity of Jesus and that He was actually with God from the very beginning of the world at the creation. That is, in my humble opinion, the only way to read those two verses and not have the feeling of redundancy trickle in. It could be argued that, at least for the apostle John, all of his references to “the beginning” actually relate to the start of the ministry of Jesus. There will be more on that point presently.

Jesus makes a statement in John 15:27 that also needs to be examined. “And ye also shall bear witness, because ye have been with me from the beginning.” Jesus is obviously referring here to His disciples being with Him from the beginning of His ministry. And in John 16:4, Jesus tells His disciples, “But these things have I told you, that when the time shall come, ye may remember that I told you of them. And these things I said not unto you at the beginning, because I was with you.” And John also tells us, in 1st John 1:1-2, ”That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we have looked upon, and our hands have handled, of the Word of life; (For the life was manifested, and we have seen it, and bear witness, and shew unto you that eternal life, which was with the Father, and was manifested unto us;)” And, in 1st John 2:7, we find, “Brethren, I write no new commandment unto you, but an old commandment which ye had from the beginning. The old commandment is the word which ye have heard from the beginning.” And, in 1st John 2:24, we read, “Let that therefore abide in you, which ye have heard from the beginning. If that which ye have heard from the beginning shall remain in you, ye also shall continue in the Son, and in the Father.”

One of the actual verses being examined here also needs closer inspection. In 1st John 3:8 we again read, “He that committeth sin is of the devil; for the devil sinneth from the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil.” In determining what John is referencing with respect to his use of “the beginning”, we must look at the entire verse, as presented here. What does John mean when he states, “For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil.”? It almost seems as if there is a close relationship between these two statements contained in a single verse. The Son of God was manifested to destroy the works of the devil. This certainly raises the possibility that the devil was cast down to earth to continue his evilness in his attempt to defeat God, and Jesus was manifested to defeat him on his turf, and that these two separate events were relatively contemporaneous with each other. And another verse from 1st John 3:11, “For this is the message that ye heard from the beginning, that we should love one another” gives at lease some support to the “the beginning” referred to in verse 8, just three verses earlier, refers to the beginning of the New Testament. After all, what was Jesus’ primary commandments? Love for God, and love for one another.

John actually makes several other references to “the beginning”, and they all refer to the start of the New Testament. In 2nd John 1:5-6, we read, ”And now I beseech thee, lady, not as though I wrote a new commandment unto thee, but that which we had from the beginning, that we love one another. And this is love, that we walk after his commandments. This is the commandment, That, as ye have heard from the beginning, ye should walk in it.” There can be no doubt that both references to “the beginning” made here refer to the beginning of Jesus’ ministry on earth. In fact, it is notable that, with every single reference to “the beginning” made by John in his three epistles, with only one possible exception found in verse 3:8, they all refer to the beginning of the New Testament. Every one of them! So, is it at least conceivable that the one single verse in question in the epistles also refers to that same beginning John refers to so often? I believe that is the case. And, I also think that reference made to “the beginning” found in John 8:44 follows the same argument.

In the Acts of the Apostles (15:17), Luke, when wishing to report the correct “beginning”, denotes it clearly with, “Known unto God are all his works from the beginning of the world.” That he would make this distinction indicates that, for most of the apostles, the “beginning” they were most concerned about was the start of Christ’s ministry here on earth. Could John be any different with the Lord’s statement he reported in John 8:44? And Paul gives us a similar qualifier in Ephesians 3:9, “And to make all men see what is the fellowship of the mystery, which from the beginning of the world hath been hid in God, who created all things by Jesus Christ:” Paul, who is the most likely author of Hebrews, with a similar qualifier tells us, “And, Thou, Lord, in the beginning hast laid the foundation of the earth; and the heavens are the works of thine hands:” And Peter uses his own qualifier when he tells us in his second epistle, (3:4) “And saying, Where is the promise of his coming? for since the fathers fell asleep, all things continue as they were from the beginning of the creation. ”

But it is another statement made by Paul that makes a most powerful argument for the “beginning” actually referring to the start of the ministry of Christ. In Colossians 1:18, we find, “And he is the head of the body, the church: who is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead; that in all things he might have the preeminence.” Paul refers to Christ as “the beginning”, that is, the New Testament age. Based on the information contained in this portion of this essay, I believe a solid and defendable argument has been mounted that all of the apostles considered both Jesus and the period of His ministry to be “the beginning.” Furthermore, throughout the New Testament whenever “the beginning” meant something other than Christ or the time of His ministry, it was always qualified with additional information such as “the beginning of the world”, or “the beginning of the creation.” Always! No where in all of the New Testament is the term “the beginning” used to reference anything but that same New Testament ministry of our Lord Jesus Christ, or our Lord Himself.

The situation with these two verses from the apostle John, and particularly the verse from 1st John, is a conundrum of sorts. If my reasoning concerning Eve’s being deceived by the serpent and Job’s travail at the hand of Satan is correct, then neither of these two verses disproves or contravenes anything contained in this essay. The “beginning” refers to the start of God’s new covenant with man, the New Testament. If, however, the “beginning” referred to creation or pre-creation, then the Book of Job by necessity occurred prior to that august event, and Job was tested by Satan before Adam was created by God. I believe my reasoning in this section of this essay proves more so than not that “the beginning” refers to the advent of Jesus and His ministry. However, I’ll leave it to the reader to decide for themselves, and I will stick with what the Scriptures and common sense have revealed.

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Well, that is my opinion, for what it is worth. Do you agree? Disagree? Why not send me an e-mail and let me know. If you think I am wrong, please take the time to show me where I went wrong. I’ll be looking forward to your comments.

Len Lisenbee

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